OFD Protocols Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• What is the protocol for patients with severe agitation during transport?
• Which antiemetic and route is recommended for nausea or vomiting?
• Which option correctly describes the DNR paper recognition in Florida?
• Which statement best describes the goal of capacity assessment in refusal situations?
• Which lead is specifically used to assess right ventricular involvement in suspected inferior myocardial infarction?
• Which action best aligns with the management of hypotension with multiple potential causes in a patient?
• Who holds the title of Medical Director in the Orange County EMS System?
• What should be done with LVAD equipment during transport?
• Which rhythm is considered non-shockable and relevant to termination criteria?
• What should medical personnel do in unforeseen patient care scenarios?
• What is the protocol for treating chest pain in cardiac emergencies?
• What is the maximum time allowed to complete the initial assessment and initiate therapy after patient contact?
• What route is appropriate for initial fluid administration in hypovolemia during cardiac arrest?
• What is the protocol for treating opioid overdose?
• When should Medical Control be contacted regarding pediatric refusals?
• In airway management during cardiac arrest, when is cricothyrotomy indicated?
• In suspected second- or third-degree heart block, how should pacing be approached?
• What is the standard single-dose amount for albuterol nebulization?
• Which statement best describes a RASS score of 0?
• What must be evaluated upon arrival at an emergency scene?
• What does ST elevation in two or more contiguous leads indicate?
• Which fire department is part of the Orange County EMS System?
• Which statement best describes a patient with RASS +4?
• Which of the following is NOT a recommended safety measure for a patient refusing transport after hypoglycemia?
• For unstable tachyarrhythmia, which intervention is commonly performed?
• When assessing a person in police custody, EMS should perform assessments and treatment according to standards for which group?
• Which protocol governs the management of head injuries?
• What should be administered for suspected Torsades de Pointes?
• What is the compression to ventilation ratio for BLS with airway?
• During assessment, what could signal impaired decision-making capacity?
• What should be done if a patient is experiencing heat cramps?
• What is the treatment for heat stroke?
• Which statement best describes the physician's accountability when directing on-scene care?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a 'T' cause of cardiac arrest?
• For restricting movement of the spine when injury is suspected, which protocol is applied?
• What is the recommended dosage for Nitroglycerin for chest pain?
• What is deep sedation?
• What position should patients be restrained in?
• Initial management of an allergic reaction with signs of anaphylaxis should include...?
• Which of the following describes signs of heat exhaustion?
• List some differential diagnoses for respiratory failure.
• Which trio of monitors must be displayed concurrently on the monitor for patients under observation?
• What is the role of an LVAD in cardiac emergencies?
• Which clinical sign suggests fluid overload in a patient with known congestive heart failure receiving IV fluids?
• What should EMS do if a Law Enforcement Officer refuses to allow transport for a patient needing medical care?
• Which route is used to administer Amiodarone for persistent VF/pVT?
• Which statement about maintaining ventilation is accurate?
• How often should Epinephrine be given during cardiac arrest?
• What indicates a patient may not have decision-making capacity?
• In the context of anaphylaxis, which statement about angioedema is true?
• For an allergic reaction to a bite or sting, what protocol or action should be followed?
• Within what time frame must transport to the nearest ED be feasible to allow withholding resuscitation in severe traumatic injury?
• What is the protocol for regular narrow complex tachycardia?
• What is the Richmond Agitation-Sedation Scale (RASS) used for?
• Managing bradycardia: what is the recommended initial approach?
• What is the purpose of push dose epinephrine in bradycardia treatment?
• What should be done for a prolapsed cord during delivery?
• What is the dosage of Sodium Bicarbonate for Tricyclic antidepressant overdose?
• What must be monitored for patients requiring physical or chemical restraints?
• If ventilation is unacceptable during cardiac arrest, what should be done?
• Which protocol addresses management of trauma alerts?
• On a 911 response, which role is primarily responsible for directing patient care decisions in the field?
• What action should be taken if additional orders are needed?
• What is the maximum number of Epinephrine doses during cardiac arrest when using the 1:10,000 concentration?
• When documenting interactions with law enforcement during transport, which detail is essential?
• EMS protocols require offering transport to all patients. What is the standard destination option?
• Which protocol would be used for treating injuries due to burns?
• Which statement about placenta handling in EMS is correct?
• What is the objective of the fluid bolus before administering vasopressor therapy in bradycardia management?
• In overdose and poisoning, when is activated charcoal most effective?
• Who makes patient care decisions during 911 calls?
• What is administered for nausea or vomiting and at what dose?
• Upon arriving at a scene, how should incoming EMS crews coordinate with the on-scene team?
• What should be monitored in patients receiving dextrose?
• What is the dosage of Amiodarone for persistent VF/pVT?
• What should be done if continuous expired ETCO2 cannot be detected?
• Which statement best describes the objective of the uniform treatment approach?
• What is the significance of a stroke alert?
• In suspected acute coronary syndrome, what critical information should be quickly identified and communicated to the ED?
• What is the significance of monitoring ETCO2 during airway management?
• What is the first treatment step for unstable bradycardia?
• Which statement best describes a RASS score of +1?
• What is the role of Medical Control in EMS protocols?
• Which symptoms indicate a moderate allergic reaction?
• Which protocol would be referenced for treating injuries due to burns?
• What is the transport destination protocol for unstable patients?
• Which component documents the EMT/paramedic's impression of the problem?
• Which statement correctly defines moderate sedation?
• What constitutes an invasive airway attempt?
• What should be assessed to determine a patient's decision-making capacity?
• What is the maximum total dose of Amiodarone for wide complex tachycardia?
• In glycemic emergencies, an ETCO2 reading of less than 20 is indicative of which condition?
• When does an individual become a patient?
• Which of the following is NOT a typical sign of heat exhaustion?
• Which statement best describes exceptions to standard EMS protocols?
• Which monitoring is included in the SNORES bundle related to metabolic status?
• Protocol for treating stable and symptomatic patients with tachycardia?
• Which parameter is not listed as part of the SNORES bundle monitoring elements?
• What protocol should be followed for treating arrhythmias?
• What is the protocol for documenting interactions with law enforcement during patient transport?
• What happens when a patient's decision-making capacity is deemed impaired?
• Which medication use constitutes a contraindication to nitroglycerin administration?
• Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of preeclampsia?
• If the first adenosine dose fails to terminate SVT, what is the next recommended step?
• In mini-SOAPP, what does O stand for?
• What should be done if EMS crew members are not trained to manage devices during transport?
• What is moderate sedation?
• What defines Trauma Alert in triage categories?
• If a medical personnel encounters a situation not covered by the protocols, what should they do?
• What is the primary aim of the General Principles, as described in the EMS guidelines?
• What is the protocol for a patient who has resolved insulin-induced hypoglycemia but refuses transport?
• What does a RASS score of +3 indicate?
• Which statement describes the most appropriate LVAD-related safety check before transport or escalation?
• Which action represents the first step in managing unstable narrow complex tachycardia?
• What should be documented during sedation in emergency care?
• What is the significance of the acknowledgments section in the protocols?
• Who is the book dedicated to?
• What is the definition of Trauma Grey in triage categories?
• Who is the Medical Director of the Orange County EMS System?
• What is the recommended position and action for managing a shoulder dystocia during delivery?
• What best describes the pediatric trauma protocol?
• What should be done if the placenta delivers?
• What is the first step in managing respiratory failure?
• What should be the primary objective when approaching any patient in EMS practice?
• Which statement best describes a patient with a RASS score of +3?
• Which statement about continuous monitoring in ALS is true?
• Which protocol should be consulted for severe agitation during transport?
• What are the causes to consider for altered mental status?
• What is the risk associated with LVAD patients?
• What is the maximum dose of ipratropium bromide via nebulizer?
• What should be assessed to confirm effective ventilation?
• What is the goal time to obtain a 12-lead EKG after first contact in acute coronary syndrome?
• For all cardiac arrest patients, which two times should be documented?
• Which are signs of a mild allergic reaction?
• If a patient shows signs of hypotension or shock, what is the appropriate approach?
• What should be done for severe respiratory distress if the patient is hypertensive?
• In environmental emergencies, which action is a key immediate treatment for heat-related illness?
• Which organization was mentioned as contributing to protocol development?
• If a patient with bradycardia has a systolic blood pressure of 95 mmHg, what is the recommended course of action?
• Which situation may impair a patient’s ability to maintain ventilatory function and require airway assistance?
• If tension pneumothorax is suspected, what intervention is indicated?
• Which information should be documented for a patient who requires medical decision-making assistance?
• Interfacility transport decisions should be based on which criterion?
• In cases of lightning or high-voltage electrical injuries, what is the recommended approach?
• What is the purpose of securing the airway device?
• What type of oxygen should be used for patients with serious respiratory symptoms?
• What is the most appropriate initial assessment to gauge respiratory adequacy?
• Which route is used to administer Versed during a seizure?
• Which protocol is used for rapid, multi-system evaluation following a major injury?
• Which of the following is a T that may cause cardiac arrest?
• What is the treatment for respiratory distress in emergency care?
• Which position is correct for late-pregnancy transport to minimize vena cava compression?
• What should be monitored in airway emergencies?
• Which state is the yellow DNR recognition associated with in the given information?
• What additional safety measures should be considered for patients refusing transport after hypoglycemia?
• Which protocol covers pediatric seizures?
• What should ideally result from the use of sedative agents in emergency care?
• What is the relationship between the Orange County EMS System and centralized medical oversight?
• Managing hypoglycemia in a conscious patient typically involves...?
• Which describes a key element in the documentation after a patient refuses transport following bronchospasm treatment?
• Differential diagnosis for polymorphous VT?
• What does the 'P' in mini-SOAPP stand for?
• What must be done if there is a conflict between a physician's orders and the paramedic's judgment?
• What are paramedics authorized to do when a patient is medically incapacitated?
• What is the recommended aspirin dosage for myocardial infarction?
• Which statement best captures the system's mission?
• If additional orders are needed in emergency care, what should you do?
• After starting transcutaneous pacing, what should be confirmed?
• Which protocol covers the control of hemorrhage?
• What does a RASS score of +4 indicate?
• In triage coding, the term 'Code' is associated with which condition?
• Which component records which protocols and treatments were administered?
• Which of the following is not typically included in the pre-arrival radio report?
• During patient transfer, which items should be documented?
• What is required for a patient to provide informed refusal of medical care?
• What is established when an assessment of an individual is necessary?
• What is the recommended action when a parent refuses care for a minor and safety is a concern?
• What is the maximum cumulative dose of Droperidol?
• What is the initial care for bites and envenomations?
• What should be confirmed with the transferring physician before transport?
• In cardiac arrest with a shockable rhythm, what should be done promptly?
• Which documentation establishes the physician on scene is authorized to supervise on-site care?
• If hyperkalemia is suspected, which treatment should be considered?
• Which document defines the scope of practice EMTs must be knowledgeable and proficient in?
• What is the minimum depth for manual chest compressions?
• What does the yellow paper signify in relation to DNR orders?
• After resuscitation from cardiac arrest, what should be done regarding transport destination?
• Which of the following lists represents signs of shock?
• When a patient refuses transport, which elements must be documented to validate the refusal?
• After vagal maneuvers, which medication is commonly used to terminate SVT?
• What is the initial dose of Midazolam for seizure treatment when given IM/IN?
• What is the purpose of capnography in airway management?
• There is a protocol for airway emergencies. Which statement is true?
• Who has the authority to authorize changes and oversee the implementation of EMS protocols?
• Which statement accurately describes how the protocols handle unforeseen patient care situations?
• In postpartum hemorrhage with systolic blood pressure below 90 mmHg, which treatment is indicated per protocol?
• What information should be provided to the receiving facility during patient transfer?
• Which item is appropriate to report to Medical Control when termination is considered?
• What is the recommended action for an actively seizing patient?
• If additional orders are needed during emergency care, who should you contact?
• Who oversees the medical treatment protocols in the Orange County EMS System?
• Which of the following is not a listed differential diagnosis for chest pain?
• Which triage category indicates 'Low acuity of illness/injury'?
• What must a physician on scene agree to when directing prehospital care?
• What is Desmond Fitzpatrick's role in the Orange County EMS System?
• What does the 'A' in mini-SOAPP stand for?
• Which diagnostic test is essential to confirm STEMI?
• What is the maximum dose of diphenhydramine for allergic reactions?
• What is the role of the Medical Director in the context of the EMS protocols?
• What vital signs must be displayed simultaneously on the monitor?
• What is the role of the Medical Directors in the Orange County EMS System?
• What action should be initiated when STEMI criteria are present?
• What is the treatment for eclampsia?
• What is the heart rate threshold for treating irregular narrow complex tachycardia?
• During transfer, which item should be documented?
• What indicates good insight into their condition?
• In which patient demographics should atypical ACS be considered?
• What is a contraindication for administering Magnesium in emergency care?
• In the context of epinephrine dosing for anaphylaxis, what is the concentration used for IM administration?
• Which action is required if a patient who is not oriented cannot participate in decision-making during refusal?
• In a trauma case, which approach aligns with the protocol?
• Which destination criteria should guide EMS transport decisions?
• In overdose and poisoning scenarios, what is the recommended initial management?
• What should be done if transport has been initiated?
• What type of defibrillation must monitor/defibrillators provide under these protocols?
• Which triage category is defined as 'Serious, but not critical'?
• What is the target systolic blood pressure when treating bradycardia?
• What is the first step in managing severe postpartum hemorrhage?
• If an alveolar waveform is not present after intubation, what is the next step?
• What is the purpose of continuous monitoring in CNS emergencies?
• What must be completed if a patient initiates a refusal of transport?
• What is the initial treatment step for a patient presenting with syncope?
• What does the refusal of medical care checklist assess?
• Who is responsible for the education of emergency physicians and out-of-hospital providers in the Orange County EMS System?
• Which protocol is used to guide care for suspected head injuries?
• How should agitation or combativeness be addressed in post-resuscitation care?
• What must be done if a patient is not oriented during the refusal process?
• Which is NOT listed as a criterion for informed refusal capacity?
• What is the recommended IV fluid bolus for hypotension?
• If a patient with an LVAD meets trauma or stroke alert criteria, what should be done?
• What fluid therapy is recommended for treating hypovolemia during cardiac arrest?
• In mini-SOAPP, what does S stand for?
• Which method is specified for delivering albuterol in wheezing management?
• What is required for every patient in cardiac arrest?
• What is the importance of continuous monitoring during restraint?
• Which combination best describes signs of severe respiratory distress in a patient?
• In the event of cardiac arrest, what is the most appropriate initial action?
• What should be done if a patient has 2nd or 3rd degree heart block?
• Which protocol should be used to restrict movement of the spine during suspected spinal injury?
• What information should accompany the time of witnessed deficit for medical decision-making assistance?
• What ETCO2 value is associated with termination criteria?
• At a death scene, which action is NOT recommended to preserve trace evidence?
• What is the dosage of Calcium Chloride for calcium channel blocker overdose?
• Which statement best describes the Red triage category?
• Which finding would most strongly suggest a ventricular origin of tachycardia?
• What is the overarching goal of the Orange County EMS System?
• Which combination best describes the criteria for releasing a patient into law enforcement custody for transport to a psychiatric facility?
• When a patient meets both Alert criteria, which destination is appropriate?
• Which indicators should prompt immediate LVAD assessment?
• How are the EMS protocols described in the material organized?
• In a patient with diabetes and altered mental status, what is the most immediate action?
• What is the SNORES bundle?
• Which component of mini-SOAPP documents vital signs?
• When should a STEMI alert be initiated?
• What is the first action in the decision point for pulseless arrest?
• What should be monitored continuously after administering sedation medications?
• What is the protocol for patients controlled by law enforcement using a Taser?
• What indicates evidence of psychiatric decompensation?
• What monitoring is required for patients requiring parenteral narcotics or sedative agents?
• What should be assessed in all patients with altered mental status?
• Which of the following is an H that may cause cardiac arrest?
• What is the Delayed Offload Procedure?
• What should be done if asystole is seen on the cardiac monitor?
• Which protocol would be used for submersion injuries?
• What is the recommended compression rate during CPR?
• What is a common differential diagnosis for tachycardia?
• What documentation must a physician on scene provide?
• What should the initial radio transmission begin with?
• What should be avoided if the patient is on Digoxin/Lanoxin?
• If the presenting part during childbirth is not the head, what should you do?
• After every patient encounter, which document must be completed?
• What is the recommended oxygen flow rate for patients receiving the SNORES bundle?
• What is the standard refusal process in EMS?
• Within 3 minutes after patient contact, what decision should be made?
• What is the reason for involving law enforcement at a death scene?
• When is the Delayed Offload Procedure activated?
• What is the target mean arterial pressure (MAP) when treating bradycardia?
• Which finding would most support a history of COPD or asthma in a patient with respiratory distress?
• Noting the last seen normal informs decisions about which therapy?
• Which of the following is NOT typically considered part of the differential diagnosis for bradycardia?
• Which statement correctly distinguishes minimal sedation from moderate sedation?
• What should be minimized between ceasing compressions and delivering shocks in VF/VT?
• What is the protocol for patients with LVAD regarding cardioversion?
• Which findings indicate possible COPD or asthma?
• How should pediatric trauma patients be treated?
• What is emphasized in the protocols regarding patient care?
• What is the recommended practice for incoming crews at a scene with ongoing assessment?
• Extended delayed offload scenario: what should EMS personnel do?
• What is the role of the Medical Control Base Station?
• Pediatric refusals should prompt Medical Control involvement in which scenario?
• What is the standard tranexamic acid dosage for postpartum hemorrhage when indicated?
• Which statement correctly describes the dose and administration of Amiodarone for unstable wide complex tachycardia?
• Which of the following is NOT a differential diagnosis for syncope?
• What is the recommended fluid strategy for heat cramps?
• What is the definition of 'Sepsis Alert' in triage categories?
• What conditions must be met to withhold resuscitation in severe traumatic injury?
• Which criterion is included in termination of resuscitation guidelines?
• What is the maximum number of intubation and SGA attempts allowed?
• What should be done if adenosine does not work for SVT?
• For nontransport agency personnel to provide patient information, which format is preferred?
• Which of the following is a differential diagnosis for seizures?
• Who provides additional orders during CNS emergencies?
• What should be done if a patient is unable to take oral glucose?
• Capnography is required for every patient in cardiac arrest. Which of the following best describes capnography?
• What is the first step in managing a patient with abdominal pain?
• Which statement best reflects the initial approach to heat exhaustion regarding cooling and hydration?
• What is the maximum total dose of atropine in bradycardia management?
• Which of the following is contraindicated when using nitroglycerin?
• What is the first step in managing cardiac arrest?
• Which protocol specifically addresses hemorrhage management?
• What is the definition of Green in triage categories?
• What is the correct Magnesium Sulfate dose/delivery for eclampsia?
• Early defibrillation is most beneficial during cardiac arrest when the patient is in which rhythm?
• If a LEO requests transport of a detained patient who has refused medical care, EMS should?
• What is the importance of documenting the patient’s condition at transfer?
• Which of the following is true about the use of calcium and sodium bicarbonate in cardiac emergencies?
• Which signs indicate a patient is pulseless and apneic?
• What is required for interfacility transport decisions?
• Which entity is described as central to governing and updating the protocols?
• Which monitoring is essential for restrained patients?
• What is the maximum recommended chest compression depth to avoid excessive penetration?
• What type of changes can be made to the medical treatment protocols?
• Which monitoring is routinely performed when managing suspected pulmonary edema?
• What should be considered in trauma cases?
• What is the focus of trauma protocols?
• What happens once EMS-transported patients are on hospital property?
• How soon should a repeat dose of epinephrine be given in anaphylaxis?
• In unstable narrow complex tachycardia, which action is preferred as the initial step?
• Which scenario indicates the need for a full ALS assessment?
• Which practice applies to IV medications according to the protocol?
• Time frame for patient contact to transport in cardiac emergencies?
• If a patient refuses hospital transport, what must be done?
• Which medication is contraindicated in a patient with a wide complex tachycardia?
• If a detained patient refuses transport, what is the EMS protocol?
• What should be done if a parent refuses medical care for a minor and it poses a threat to the child's well-being?
• In patients with congestive heart failure, intravenous fluid administration carries a risk of which complication?
• If intubation attempts are unsuccessful, what is the recommended course of action?
• Which individual holds the title of Deputy Medical Director?
• Which of the following lists constitutes the differential diagnoses to consider for chest pain?
• Who is primarily responsible for governing and updating the medical treatment protocols?
• What qualities did Salvatore Silvestri MD embody in his work?
• What should a paramedic do if they believe a physician's orders are harmful?
• Which items should be monitored continuously in Advanced Life Support?
• What does a RASS score of +1 indicate?
• What is the initial dose of adenosine for SVT?
• What type of oxygen should be used for noncritical patients with no respiratory distress?
• Which of the following is a risk associated with LVAD patients?
• Which elements are included in the SNORES bundle of care?
• What should be done if a patient with an LVAD has no detectable pulse?
• What should be monitored in patients with suspected acute coronary syndrome?
• What is the primary focus of the General Principles of Medical Care?
• Which of the following may indicate atypical ACS?
• What is the primary purpose of the Orange County EMS System Protocols?
• There is a protocol for abdominal pain. Which statement is true?
• What is the first medication administered for unstable wide complex tachycardia?
• What is the recommended albuterol dose for wheezing?
• What heart rate constitutes bradycardia?
• What is the minimum number of Epinephrine doses required prior to termination decisions?
• Which condition is commonly considered as a differential diagnosis for respiratory failure?
• If a parent cannot be contacted for a minor’s refusal of care, what is recommended?
• When evaluating a patient with altered mental status, which conditions should be considered?
• What is the definition of a pediatric patient in trauma situations?
• What is the protocol for a pulseless, apneic patient?
• What information should be provided in a radio report before arrival?
• Which aspirin regimen is recommended in suspected myocardial infarction?
• What is the initial management sequence for unstable wide complex tachycardia?
• What is the weight-based dosing for diphenhydramine in allergic reactions?
• What should be done if a procedure is not addressed in the EMS Reference Manual?
• What should be done if a patient meets both Trauma Alert and Stroke Alert criteria?
• Which statement best describes the scope of the protocols' applicability?
• Which statement about bradycardia management is true?
• What is minimal sedation?
• The first element of the initial radio transmission should begin with what?
• If a second dose of Amiodarone is given after the initial 300 mg, what amount is used?
• What should be done if a patient is found in a prone position after being Tasered?
• What is the recommended head elevation for stroke patients?
• In post-resuscitation care, the role of Push Dose Epinephrine is to maintain what?
• What is the first step in patient care according to the General Principles?
• Which condition is commonly considered in the differential diagnosis of bradycardia?
• What is the appropriate treatment for a patient with a BGL < 60 mg/dL who is alert?
• What should EMS personnel do within 2 minutes of arrival at a hospital?
• Which dose of Calcium Chloride for overdose is correct?
• What is the definition of Yellow in triage categories?
• If a patient’s speech is slurred during assessment, what might this indicate?
• What are the signs of anaphylaxis?
• How is a failed airway defined in airway management context?
• What is a common cause of syncope in geriatric patients?
• What mouth-related precaution is recommended during a seizure?
• During transport for a patient in late second or third trimester, what is the recommended position?
• During rapid cooling for heat stroke, which areas are targeted with cooling measures?
• Role of magnesium in cardiac emergencies?
• Which ETCO2 finding is most commonly associated with diabetic ketoacidosis in a glycemic emergency?
• The continuous monitoring after sedation includes which of these?
• What is the purpose of the 'Green Card' given to physicians on scene?
• Who is responsible for scene safety and resource management decisions at the EMS incident?
• Significance of a wide QRS complex?
• What is the first treatment for VF/pVT?
• If a patient is unable to maintain their airway, which action should be performed?
• First step in managing a suspected STEMI?
• In stable patients with suspected SVT, which interventions are recommended?
• How should trace evidence be preserved at a death scene?
• What best describes the environmental emergencies protocol?
• During defibrillator charging, what is the recommended action?
• When are Calcium and Sodium Bicarbonate indicated?
• Which component focuses on events prior to ED arrival and the patient's response to treatments?
• What information should be included in a concise radio report after initial information is acknowledged?
• How long must cardiac arrest be refractory to be considered for termination?
• Before administering a medication, what should be assessed?
• What is essential to maintain during high-quality CPR?
• Which route is approved for administering diphenhydramine in allergic reactions?
• What happens to EMS patients once they reach hospital property?
• According to the protocol, what is the normal range for ETCO2 used to indicate adequate oxygenation?
• How often should a nitroglycerin dose be repeated if chest pain persists and there are no contraindications?
• What medications should be given over 1-2 minutes unless specified otherwise?
• Which statement best describes the function of the Medical Control Base Station during an EMS response?
• The EMS policy includes a protocol for police custody/patient care. Which statement best reflects this?
• For a conscious patient with a partial airway obstruction, which action is recommended?
• What is the first step in managing a complete airway obstruction in an unconscious patient?
• During law enforcement involvement with a restrained patient, which action helps ensure safety?
• When a patient suffers an allergic reaction to a bite or sting, what transport consideration about the animal is mentioned?
• What does Florida Statute 316.1933 authorize regarding DUI blood tests?
• What is the definition of 'Code' in triage categories?
• In a glycemic emergency, which assessment should be performed?
• Which action is NOT recommended for a prolapsed cord during delivery?
• What is the dosage of Naloxone (Narcan) for opioid overdose?
• What is the recommended action for an LVAD patient who is unresponsive with no detectable pulse?
• Which option presents a quick bedside test essential in AMS evaluation to rule out metabolic causes?
• In abdominal pain management, dehydration evidence warrants what action?
• Which document defines the EMT scope of practice?
• During advanced airway management, what should be done about CPR?
• What is a core principle of sepsis management?
• What should be done if there is no response to initial treatments for wide complex tachycardia?
• What combination is recommended for polymorphic VT (Torsades)?
• Handling calls involving poisonous/hazardous material exposures?
• In CNS emergencies, what is the role of Medical Control?
• What does a RASS score of +2 indicate?
• Name one organization that contributed to the development of the Orange County EMS System protocols.
• What are the Florida requirements for a Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) order?
• Which statement describes deep sedation?
• In glycemic emergencies, which assessment is essential?
• In the scenario of an incapacitated patient, what is a paramedic's authorized action?
• What should be documented during the refusal process?
• Under non-emergency conditions, where should stable patients be transported?
• What is the protocol for a paramedic student or EMT assisting ALS patients?
• What is the role of medical control in cardiac emergencies?
• What is the maximum total dose of Naloxone (Narcan) for opioid overdose?
• If an officer declines transport when a patient needs care, EMS should first do what?
• What is the procedure for cutting the umbilical cord after delivery?
• For a patient who had insulin-induced hypoglycemia resolved, what is required for refusal of transport?
• What should be assessed in patients with LVADs?
• Where should all patients be transported unless they are unstable?
• Which two respiratory-related monitoring parameters are specified in the SNORES bundle?
• When a patient is medically incapacitated due to impaired decision-making, what is the appropriate action?
• The sedation/sedative agent use protocol focuses on which aspect of patient care?
• Which defibrillation energy delivery is described for shocks delivered by AEDs?
• What is the final determinant for all decisions made by medical personnel?
• What does a RASS score of 0 indicate?
• Which triage category is described by 'Meets Trauma Grey criteria'?
• What is the maximum dose of albuterol for respiratory distress?
• Which statement best describes a RASS score of +2?
• Which times are required to be documented during cardiac arrest events?
• Which statement best describes a mild allergic reaction?
• What action is recommended when dealing with a lightning or high-voltage electrical injury?
• What should be assessed in a patient with suspected stroke?
• What is the recommended treatment for heat exhaustion?
• In respiratory distress, CPAP may be considered particularly for which condition?
• What are the clinical manifestations of preeclampsia?
• Which statement defines 'adequate' oxygenation in respiratory failure?
• What blood glucose thresholds indicate considering treatment in glycemic emergencies?
• Which solution is used for wound irrigation in initial bite care?
• What should be done for a patient with suspected pulmonary edema?
• What criteria must be met for mandatory Medical Control contact prior to refusal?
• What system should be used for pediatric patients to determine medication dosages?
• What is the first step in treating hyperthermia?
• What are the exceptions for contacting Medical Control after advanced life support has been initiated?
• After administering isotonic saline bolus for hypotension, how should reassessment occur?
• What is the initial IV dose of Diltiazem for narrow complex tachycardia?
• What is the importance of the Medical Control in the EMS protocols?
• Which source provides additional orders and guidance in EMS when needed?
• What is the role of mechanical compression devices (MCDs) in cardiac arrest?
• Which condition is a contraindication for administering Nitroglycerin?
• What should be marked on the skin after a bite or sting?
• In a child with severe airway obstruction, which sequence is recommended?
• Which factor is explicitly part of the decision-making capacity assessment?
• What overarching principle guides all decisions in the Orange County EMS System protocols?
• In airway management, which option best describes the use of Magill forceps?
• What is required for personal protective equipment in EMS?
• What indicates that a patient is not exhibiting signs of a medical condition impairing decision-making?
• After a patient refuses transport following bronchospasm treatment, what should be documented?
• What is the first safety consideration upon arrival at an emergency scene?
• When handing off a patient to the receiving facility, what documentation must be left?
• In managing abdominal pain, which statement is correct regarding possible cardiac etiology and dehydration?
• In a patient taking Digoxin, which substance should be avoided?
• Which part of the protocols acknowledges contributors?
• What is the responsibility of the agency or authority at the EMS incident location?
• When evaluating altered mental status, which of the following should be assessed as part of the differential?
• In the context of the prehospital course, what does the second P stand for?
• For polymorphic VT (Torsades), which treatment is recommended initially?
• What are the priorities in trauma management?
• What is the recommended fluid bolus before administering push dose epinephrine?
• What does the 'Red' triage category indicate?
• Which protocol is used to manage burns?
• What kind of care does the Orange County EMS System aim to provide?
• In an LVAD patient who is unresponsive with no pulse, which action is most appropriate?
• What should be done if a patient is seizing?
• Noting the last time a stroke patient was seen normal is critical for which reason?
• On capnography, what indicates proper placement of an ETT or SGA?
• What precautions should be taken for a seizing patient?
• What is the goal when assessing the patient’s capacity to refuse EMS care?
• What is the treatment for a severe allergic reaction (anaphylaxis) according to the protocol?
• Which signs define moderate respiratory distress?
• Which medication is NOT included in the SNORES bundle?
• What should be documented when a patient refuses transport after bronchospasm treatment?
• What is the recommended action if a patient refuses further treatment after hypoglycemic episodes?
• Which scenario indicates that no resuscitation should be attempted?
• What should be done while the defibrillator is charging?
• Transcutaneous pacing is indicated for which condition?
• What is the recommended ventilation rate to avoid hyperventilation?
• What should be done for a patient with altered mental status and a history of diabetes?
• If ST elevation is noted in inferior leads, what additional step should be taken?
• Why is it important for the protocols to address unforeseen circumstances?
• Which situations require more than one attendant in the transport unit?
• In a failed airway scenario, what should be the immediate action?
• What is the maximum number of albuterol nebulizer doses allowed?
• What is the maximum heart rate for pacing in bradycardia treatment?
• What should be done if a procedure is not addressed in the EMS Reference Manual?
• Which medication is administered for bradycardia?
• What is the first step in managing altered mental status?
• What is the protocol for a patient with severe nausea and vomiting?
• Hypoxic seizures should be treated according to which protocol?